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hi everyone. this a question for IG players mostly. when i'm using ordnance weapons, do i roll first a roll to hit and after the scater dice? or i roll just the scater dice?
Only if you can't see them. If they're in LOS then it's back to 1d6.Also, in the case of models capable of firing indirectly (i.e. the Basilisk) you roll 2d6 and apply the higher die with the scatter dice.
Right, but then you wouldn't be firing indirectly.Only if you can't see them. If they're in LOS then it's back to 1d6.
What gives you that impression? Just because an indirect weapon has LOS to the enemy doesn't mean it stops firing indirectly. Just because it's firing with LOS doesn't mean it loses the subsequent pinning test it causes (with the negative modifier if it's ordnance).Right, but then you wouldn't be firing indirectly.
That's what we're talking about... I think anyway.I thought only Barrage weapons caused the pinning test? So Ork lobbas, IG mortars and Basilisks, and such like.
Now you've made the mistake of trying to add reality to RAW.By definition, indirect fire requires it to be indirect-- the very word means that there is no direct line of fire (i.e. line of sight) to the target.
Don't forget the pinning test it causes, it's why people with a Basilisk will often opt to fire indirectly if they think they have a decent chance of the target being out of minimum range regardless of LOS.Wrong. At least in the case of the Basilisk, i can't answer for other weaponry. I know this because a friend of mine has a basilisk with the cannon facing paralell to the ground. Ruleswise, if a weapon has indirect fire you just designate a target, check range and LOS, and if you have none, you roll extra scatter as per indirect fire rules. Otherwise it's a normal ordnance shot. At least that's what i recall, and i re-read the rules fairly recently.